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Originally Posted by Bilbosky
As I've just said, the definition of "inevitable" is "certain to happen."
"The future will happen." and "The future is inevitable." are therefore indistinct, as they mean exactly the same thing.
The fact that you danced around with intermediate steps equating those two terms through different means doesn't change the fact that your initial premise and final conclusion are indistinct and therefore your argument is circular.
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They don't mean the same thing, because it's possible to believe one without believing the other. "The future will happen" is just a statement of the definition of future. "The future is inevitable" is a consequence of what exactly it means for something to happen and what it means for something to be inevitable. The fact that you can deduce "the future will happen" from "the future is inevitable" and vice versa does not make the argument fallacious. If it did, then all mathematical arguments would be fallacious.
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you're giving "the future" a value equal to what will happen, which is basically saying the future is the present at a different time
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er... and you're going to disagree with that? That the future is not the present at any time?
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what i'm arguing is that the future is a range of values that decreases towards one(what happens) as time approaches zero (present)
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But how are the unrealized 'values' relevant to
the future as it actually happens?